Why do the authors of the article/chapter state that “language standarisation does not symbolise an actual end-product”? (Explain in your own words). What do you think are the advantages and disadvantages of standarizing languages?
This week in class we have discussed the relationship between language and power. We did spend more time with Tannen’s article, but could you relate the multiple definitions and relationship of language and power presented in Talbot et al. introduction (Monday reading) and Tannen’s work? who do you think gets heard and why?